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Tips are essentially helpful for the candidates throughout their IELTS reading preparation. It is necessary that the candidates understand the tips and practice them to ensure a good band score. Some of the essential IELTS reading tips include scanning for keywords, and carefully reading between the passages. Paying immense attention to detail, giving more focus on understanding the questions, practising active reading, understanding the question types and being efficient in time management. While the variable difficulty of the IELTS reading section may prove challenging to the candidates, with effective IELTS practice, the candidates can ensure IELTS success without hassle.
The IELTS reading practice holds a pivotal role in the overall IELTS preparation journey. Both diligent preparation and keen attention to detail are very necessary to excel in the reading section of the IELTS examination. IELTS reading exercise is necessary in improving the reading skills of the candidate. Considering the fact that passages of variable difficulty are asked in the IELTS Reading section, different IELTS reading practice tests play a crucial role in moulding the candidates for the actual IELTS Reading examination. In this article, we will understand the IELTS Reading Practice Test 6 along with the IELTS Reading Practice Test 6 answers. This article contains answers to the IELTS academic reading practice test 6 that includes reading questions from topics such as Plant Scents, The Development Of Plastics and A natural choice for powering the family home and Global Warming In New Zealand.
In the IELTS examination Reading section, candidates are presented with three passages of varying difficulty levels, totalling 40 questions. To succeed, candidates must carefully read through the passages and provide accurate answers to the questions. This skill can be improved through rigorous attempts at IELTS reading practice tests.
This article offers a practice set for each Reading section, incorporating authentic questions from previous years of the IELTS examination. The purpose is to familiarize students with the examination pattern and the expected level of questions. It is intended to serve as a valuable companion for candidates in their IELTS preparation journey.
A Everyone is familiar with scented flowers, and many people have heard that floral odours help the plant attract pollinators. This common notion is mostly correct, but it is surprising how little scientific proof of it exists. Of course, not all flowers are pollinated by biological agents— for example, many kinds of grass are wind-pollinated—but the flowers of the grasses may still emit volatiles. In fact, plants
emit organic molecules all the time, although they may not be obvious to the human
nose. As for flower scents that we can detect with our noses, bouquets that attract
moths and butterflies generally smell “sweet,” and those that attract certain flies
seem “rotten” to us.
B The release of volatiles from vegetative parts of the plant is familiar, although until
Recently the physiological functions of these chemicals were less clear and had received much less attention from scientists. When the trunk of a pine tree is injured-
for example, when a beetle tries to burrow into it- it exudes a very smelly resin. This
resin consists mostly of terpenes—hydrocarbons with a backbone of 10, 15 or 20
carbons that may also contain atoms of oxygen. The heavier C20 terpenes, called
diterpenes, are glue-like and can cover and immobilise insects as they plug the hole.
This defence mechanism is as ancient as it is effective: Many samples of fossilised
resin, or amber, contain the remains of insects trapped inside. Many other plants
emit volatiles when injured, and in some cases, the emitted signal helps defend the
plant. For example,(Z)_3_ hexenyl acetate, which is known as a “green leaf volatile”
because it is emitted by many plants upon injury, deters females of the moth
Heliothis virescens from laying eggs on injured tobacco plants. Interestingly, the
profile of emitted tobacco volatiles is different at night than during the day, and it is
the nocturnal blend, rich in several (Z)_3_hexen_i-olesters, that is most effective in
repelling the night-active H. virescens moths.
C Herbivore-induced volatiles often serve as indirect defences. These bulwarks exist
in a variety of plant species, including corn, beans, and the model plant species
Arabidopsis thaliana. Plants not only emit volatiles acutely, at the site where
caterpillars, mites, aphids or similar insects are eating them but also generally from
non-damaged parts of the plant. These signals attract a variety of predatory insects
that prey on the plant-eaters. For example, some parasitic wasps can detect the
volatile signature of a damaged plant and will lay their eggs inside the offending
caterpillar; eventually, the wasp eggs hatch and the emerging larvae feed on the
caterpillar from the inside out. The growth of infected caterpillars is retarded
considerably, to the benefit of the plant. Similarly, volatiles released by plants in
response to herbivore egg laying can attract parasites of the eggs, thereby
preventing them from hatching and avoiding the onslaught of hungry herbivores that
would have emerged. Plant volatiles can also be used as a kind of currency in some
very indirect defensive schemes. In the rainforest understory tree Leonardoxa
Africana, ants of the species Petalomyrmex phylax patrol young leaves and attack
any herbivorous insects that they encounter. The young leaves emit high levels of
the volatile compound methyl salicylate, a compound that the ants use either as a
pheromone or as an antiseptic in their nests. It appears that methyl salicylate is both
an attractant and a reward offered by the tree to get the ants to perform this valuable
deterrent role.
D The floral scent has a strong impact on the economic success of many agricultural
crops that rely on insect pollinators, including fruit trees such as the bee-pollinated
cherry, apple, apricot, and peach, as well as vegetables and tropical plants such as
papaya. Pollination not only affects crop yield but also the quality and efficiency of
crop production. Many crops require most, if not all, ovules to be fertilised for
optimum fruit size and shape. A decrease in fragrance emission reduces the ability
of flowers to attract pollinators and results in considerable losses for growers,
particularly for introduced species that had a specialised pollinator in their place of
origin. This problem has been exacerbated by recent disease epidemics that have
killed many honeybees, the major insect pollinators in the United States.E One means by which plant breeders circumvent the pollination problem is bybreeding self-compatible, or apomictic, varieties that do not require fertilisation.
Although this solution is adequate, its drawbacks include in genetic uniformity and consequent susceptibility to pathogens. Some growers have attempted to enhance
honeybee foraging by spraying scent compounds on orchard trees, but this approach
was costly, had to be repeated, had potentially toxic effects on the soil or local biota,
and, in the end, proved to be inefficient. The poor effectiveness of this strategy
probably reflects the inherent limitations of the artificial, topically applied compounds,
which clearly fail to convey the appropriate message to the bees. For example,
general spraying of the volatile mixture cannot tell the insects where exactly the
blossoms are. Clearly, a more refined strategy is needed. The ability to enhance the
existing floral scent, create scent de novo or change the characteristics of the scent,
which could all be accomplished by genetic engineering, would allow us to
manipulate the types of insect pollinators and the frequency of their visits. Moreover,
the metabolic engineering of fragrance could increase crop protection against
pathogens and pests.
F Genetic manipulation of the scent will also benefit the floriculture industry.
Ornamentals, including cut flowers, foliage, and potted plants, play an important
aesthetic role in human life. Unfortunately, traditional breeding has often produced
cultivars with improved vase life, shipping characteristics, colour, and shape while
sacrificing desirable perfumes. The loss of scent among ornamentals, which have a
worldwide value of more than $30 billion, makes them important targets for the
genetic manipulation of flower fragrance. Some work has already begun in this area,
as several groups have created petunia and carnation plants that express the linalool
synthase gene from C. Brewery. These experiments are still preliminary: For
technical reasons, the gene was expressed everywhere in the plant, and although
the transgenic plants did create small amounts of linalool, the level was below the
threshold of detection for the human nose. Similar experiments in tobacco used
genes for other monoterpene synthases, such as the one that produces limonene,
but gave similar results.
G The next generation of experiments, already in progress, includes sophisticated
schemes that target the expression of scent genes specifically to flowers or other
organs—such as special glands that can store antimicrobial or herbivore-repellent
compounds.
Extracted from - IELTS Reading Practice Sets. Copyright © 2019 by IDP education, British Council and Cambridge Assessment English
Questions 1-4
The reading Passage has seven paragraphs A-G.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
Write the correct letter A-G, in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet.
1 A substance released to help plants themselves.
2 The scent helps the plant’s pollination.
3 Practice on the genetic experiments of fragrance.
4 Plant’s scent attracts the herbivore's enemy for protection.
Questions 5-8
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
In boxes 5-8 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE, if the statement is true
FALSE, if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN, if the information is not given in the passage
5 We have little evidence to support the idea that scent attracts pollinators.
6 Heliothis virescens won’t eat those tobacco leaves on which they laid eggs.
7 Certain ants are attracted by volatiles to guard plants in the rainforest.
8 Pollination only affects fruit trees’ production rather than other crop trees.
Questions 9-13
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C, or D.
Write your answers in boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet.
9 How do wasps protect plants when they are attracted by scents according to the passage?
A plants induce wasps to prey herbivore.
B wasps lay eggs into caterpillars.
C wasps laid eggs on plants to expel herbivore.
D offending caterpillars and wasp eggs coexist well.
10 What reason caused the number of honeybees to decline in the United States.
A pollination process
B spread illness
C crop trees are poisonous
D grower’s overlook
11 Which of the following drawbacks about artificial fragrance is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A it’s very expensive
B it can’t tell correct information to pollinators.
C it needs massive manual labour
D it poisons the local environment
12 The number of $30 billion quoted in the passage is to illustrate the fact that:
A Favourable perfumes are made from ornamental flowers
B traditional floriculture industry needs reform.
C genetic operation on scent can make a vast profit.
D Scent plays a significant role in the Ornamental industry.
13 What is the weakness of genetic experiments on fragrance?
A Linalool level is too low to be smelt by nose
B no progress made in linalool emission
C experiment on tobacco has a better result
D transgenic plants produce an intense scent
Plant Scents SOLUTIONS
1. Answer: B
Process to attempt the solution: Identify the theme related to substances released for plant defence. Locate this information in paragraph B.
2. Answer: A
Process to attempt the solution: Search for details on how the scent aids plant pollination. Discover this information in paragraph A.
3. Answer: F
Process to attempt the solution: Investigate genetic experiments on fragrance. Focus on the discussion in paragraph F.
4.Answer: C
Process to attempt the solution: Explore the topic of plant scent attracting herbivore enemies for protection. Find this information in paragraph C.
5. Answer: TRUE
Process to attempt the solution:Identify information indicating a lack of scientific proof for the idea. This is found in the passage, making the statement TRUE.
6. Answer: NOT GIVEN
The passage does not provide explicit information on whether the moths will or won't eat the leaves on which they laid eggs, so the answer is NOT GIVEN.
Process to attempt the solution:Look for information about ants being attracted to volatiles to guard plants in the rainforest. The passage supports this, making the statement TRUE.
7. Answer: TRUE
Process to attempt the solution: Look for information about ants being attracted to volatiles to guard plants in the rainforest. The passage supports this, making the statement TRUE.
8. Answer: FALSE
Process to attempt the solution:Find information about the impact of pollination on different crops. The passage contradicts the statement, indicating that the impact extends to various agricultural crops, making the statement FALSE.
9. Correct Answer: B
Process to attempt the solution:
Look for information in the passage about how wasps protect plants when attracted by scents.
In paragraph C, it mentions that some parasitic wasps can detect the volatile signature of a damaged plant and will lay their eggs inside the offending caterpillar. This protects the plant as the emerging larvae feed on the caterpillar from the inside out.
10. Correct Answer: B
Process to attempt the solution:
Look for information in the passage related to the decline in the number of honeybees in the United States.
In paragraph D, it mentions recent disease epidemics as a reason for the decline.
11. Correct Answer: C
Process to attempt the solution:
Identify the drawbacks mentioned about artificial fragrance in the passage.
In paragraph E, it mentions the drawbacks of spraying scent compounds on orchard trees, but the drawback NOT mentioned is C: it needs massive manual labour.
12. Correct Answer: D
Process to attempt the solution:
Identify the context in which the figure of $30 billion is mentioned.
In paragraph F, it talks about the worldwide value of ornamentals being more than $30 billion, illustrating that scent plays a significant role in the ornamental industry
13. Correct Answer: A
Process to attempt the solution:
Look for information about weaknesses or drawbacks of genetic experiments on fragrance.
In paragraph F, it mentions that the experiments with petunia and carnation plants produced small amounts of linalool below the threshold of detection for the human nose.
NOTE
The passage addresses the role of plant volatiles, particularly floral scents, in various ecological interactions. It discusses the limited scientific proof of floral scents aiding pollination and emphasizes that not all flowers rely on biological agents for pollination. Effective IELTS Reading practice, requires strong preparation, particularly with True/False/Not Given and Multiple Choice questions, which is crucial. The passage underscores the necessity for comprehensive IELTS general reading practice tests and academic reading practice tests, emphasizing the significance of detailed comprehension of the
When rubber was first commercially produced in Europe during the nineteenth
century, it rapidly became a very important commodity, particularly in the fields of
transportation and electricity. However, during the twentieth century a number of new
synthetic materials, called plastics, superseded natural rubber in all but a few
applications.
Rubber is a polymer — a compound containing large molecules that are formed by
the bonding of many smaller, simpler units, repeated over and over again. The same
bonding principle 一 polymerisation一underlies the creation of a huge range of
plastics by the chemical industry.
The first plastic was developed as a result of a competition in the USA. In the 1860s,
$10,000 was offered to anybody who could replace ivory — supplies of which were
declining — with something equally good as a material for making billiard balls. The
prize was won by John Wesley Hyatt with a material called celluloid. Celluloid was
made by dissolving cellulose, a carbohydrate derived from plants, in a solution of
camphor dissolved in ethanol. This new material rapidly found uses in the
manufacture of products such as knife handles, detachable collars and cuffs,
spectacle frames and photographic film. Without celluloid, the film industry could
never get off the ground at the end of the 19th century.
Celluloid can be repeatedly softened and reshaped by heat and is known as thermoplastic. In 1907 Leo Baekeland, a Belgian chemist working in the USA,
invented a different kind of plastic by causing phenol and formaldehyde to react
together. Baekeland called the material Bakelite, and it was the first of the
thermosets' plastics that could be cast and moulded while hot but could not be softened
by heat and reshaped once they had set. Bakelite was a good insulator and was
resistant to water, acids and moderate heat. With these properties, it was soon being
used in the manufacture of switches, household items, such as knife handles, and
electrical components for cars.
Soon chemists began looking for other small molecules that could be strung together
to make polymers. In the 1930s, British chemists discovered that the gas ethylene
would polymerize under heat and pressure to form a thermoplastic they called
polythene. Polypropylene followed in the 1950s. Both were used to make bottles,
pipes and plastic bags. A small change in the starting material 一 replacing a
hydrogen atom in ethylene with a chlorine atom — produced PVC (polyvinyl chloride)
a hard, fireproof plastic suitable for drains and gutters. By adding certain
chemicals, a soft form of PVC could be produced, suitable as a substitute for rubber
in items such as waterproof clothing. A closely related plastic was Teflon, or PTFE
(polytetrafluoroethylene). This had a very low coefficient of friction, making it ideal for
bearings, rollers, and non-stick frying pans. Polystyrene, developed during the 1930s
in Germany, was a clear, glass-like material, used in food containers, domestic
appliances, and toys. Expanded polystyrene — a white, rigid foam — was widely
used in packaging and insulation. Polyurethanes, also developed in Germany, found
uses as adhesives, coatings, and — in the form of rigid foams — as insulation
materials. They are all produced from chemicals derived from crude oil, which
contains exactly the same elements ——carbon and hydrogen ——as many plastics.
The first of the man-made fibres, nylon, was also created in the 1930s. Its inventor
was a chemist called Wallace Carothers, who worked for the Du Pont Company in
the USA. He found that under the right conditions, two chemicals —
hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid would form a polymer that could be pumped
out through holes and then stretched to form long glossy threads that could be
woven like silk. Its first use was to make parachutes for the US armed forces in
World War II. In the post-war years, nylon completely replaced silk in the
manufacture of stockings. Subsequently, many other synthetic fibres joined nylon
including Orion, Acrilan, and Terylene. Today most garments are made of a blend of
natural fibres, such as cotton and wool, and man-made fibres that make fabrics
easier to look after.
The great strength of the plastic is its indestructibility. However, this quality is also
something of a drawback: beaches all over the world, even on the remotest islands,
are littered with plastic bottles that nothing can destroy. Nor is it very easy to recycle
plastics, as different types of plastic are often used in the same items and call for
different treatments. Plastics can be made biodegradable by incorporating into their
structure a material such as starch, which is attacked by bacteria and causes the
plastic to fall apart. Other materials can be incorporated that gradually decay in
sunlight 一 although bottles made of such materials have to be stored in the dark, to
ensure that they do not disintegrate before they have been used.
Extracted from - IELTS Reading Practice Sets. Copyright © 2019 by IDP education, British Council and Cambridge Assessment English
Questions 14-20
Complete the table below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 14-20 on your answer sheet.
Name of plastic | Date of invention | Original region | Property | Common use |
Celluloid | The 1860S | US | Clothing and 14______ | |
15 ______ | 1907 | US | can be cast and moulded but cannot be softened by heat | 16 ______ ’household items and car parts |
Polythene | The 1930s | 17 ______ | bottles | |
Rigid PVC | 18 ______ | drains and gutters | ||
Polystyrene | The 1930s | Germany | transparent and resembled 19______ | Food container domestic |
Polyurethanes | Germany | formation like 20 ______ | adhesives, coatings, and insulation |
Questions 21-26
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?
In boxes 21-26 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE, if the statement is true
FALSE, if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN, if the information is not given in the passage
21 The chemical structure of plastic is very different from that of rubber.
22 John Wesley was a famous chemist.
23 Celluloid and Bakelite react to heat in the same way.
24 The mix of different varieties of plastic can make them less recyclable.
25 Adding starch into plastic does not necessarily make plastic more durable.
26 Some plastic containers have to be preserved in special conditions.
The Development Of Plastics Solutions
14. Answer: Photographic films
Process to attempt the solution: Look for information in the passage about the plastic called Celluloid, its date of invention, original region, and common use. In the passage, it mentions that Celluloid was developed in the 1860s in the US and had common uses in clothing and items like knife handles, detachable collars and cuffs, spectacle frames, and photographic film.
15. Answer: Bakelite
Process to attempt the solution: Look for information in the passage about the plastic called Bakelite, its date of invention, original region, and property. In the passage, it mentions that Bakelite was invented in 1907 in the US and has the property of being the first thermosetting plastic.
16. Answer: Switches
Process to attempt the solution: Look for information in the passage about the plastic called Bakelite, its date of invention, original region, and common use. In the passage, it mentions that Bakelite, the first thermosetting plastic, can be cast and moulded while hot but cannot be softened by heat. It had common uses in switches, household items and car parts.
17. Answer: UK
Process to attempt the solution: Look for information in the passage about the plastic Polythene, its date of invention, original region, and common use. In the passage, it mentions that Polythene was developed in the 1930s in the UK and was used to make bottles
18. Answer: Fireproof
Process to attempt the solution: Look for information in the passage about the plastic named Rigid PVC, its date of invention, original region, and common use. In the passage, it mentions that rigid PVC, produced by replacing a hydrogen atom in ethylene with a chlorine atom, was used for drains and gutters.
19. Answer: Clear and glass-like
Process to attempt the solution: Look for information in the passage about the plastic named Polystyrene, its date of invention, original region, and property. In the passage, it mentions that Polystyrene, developed in the 1930s in Germany, was transparent and resembled glass.
20. Answer: Rigid foams
Process to attempt the solution: Look for information in the passage about the plastic named Polyurethanes, its date of invention, original region, and common use. In the passage, it mentions that Polyurethanes, developed in Germany, found uses as adhesives, coatings, and, in the form of rigid foams, as insulation materials.
21. Answer: FALSE
Process to attempt the solution:
Identify information about the chemical structure of plastic and rubber in the passage.
Recognize that both plastic and rubber are polymers, suggesting a similarity in their chemical structure.
22. Answer: NOT GIVEN
Process to attempt the solution:
Look for information about John Wesley in the passage.
Notice that the passage mentions John Wesley Hyatt but does not explicitly state whether he was a chemist.
23. Answer: FALSE
Process to attempt the solution:
Examine the information about the reaction to heat for celluloid and Bakelite in the passage.
Recognize that celluloid is a thermoplastic, while Bakelite is a thermoset plastic, indicating different reactions to heat.
24. Answer: TRUE
Process to attempt the solution:
Explore the passage for information on the recyclability of plastics.
Observe that the passage mentions challenges in recycling due to the mix of different types of plastic in the same items.
25. Answer: FALSE
Process to attempt the solution:
Investigate information about adding starch to plastic in the passage.
Recognize that adding starch can make plastics biodegradable but does not necessarily make them more durable.
26. Answer: TRUE
Process to attempt the solution:
Examine information regarding the preservation of plastic containers in special conditions in the passage.
Notice that bottles made with materials that decay in sunlight need to be stored in the dark to prevent premature disintegration.
NOTE
The passage discusses the historical development of rubber and plastics, emphasizing their impact on various industries. In the context of IELTS Reading, the emphasis lies on the significance of comprehensive practice with True/False/Not Given questions, centring on the understanding of observed situations. For effective IELTS reading exam practice online, completion of the table-type questions should be prioritized. As it frequently asked in the IELTS reading examinations.
For many environmentalists, the world seems to be getting warmer. As the nearest
country to the South Polar Region, New Zealand has maintained an upward trend in
its average temperature in the past few years. However, the temperature in New
Zealand will go up 4°C in the next century while the polar region will go up more than
6°C. The different pictures of temperature stem from its surrounding ocean which
acts as the air conditioner. Thus New Zealand is comparatively fortunate.
Scientifically speaking, this temperature phenomenon in New Zealand originated
from what researchers call "SAM" (Southern Annular Mode), which refers to the wind
belt that circles the Southern Oceans including New Zealand and Antarctica. Yet
recent work has revealed that changes in SAM in New Zealand have resulted in a
weakening of moisture during the summer and more rainfall in other seasons. A
bigger problem may turn out to be heavier droughts for agricultural activities because
of more water loss from soil, resulting in a poorer harvest before winter when the
rainfall arrives too late to rescue.
Among all the calamities posed by drought, moisture deficit ranks first. Moisture
deficit is the gap between the water plants need during the growing season and the
water the earth can offer. Measures of moisture deficit were at their highest since the
1970s in New Zealand. Meanwhile, the ecological analysis clearly shows moisture
a deficit is imposed at the different growth stages of crops. If a moisture deficit occurs
around a crucial growth stage, it will cause about a 22% reduction in grain yield as
opposed to a moisture deficit at the vegetative phase.
Global warming is not only affecting agriculture production. When scientists say the
country’s snowpack and glaciers are melting at an alarming rate due to global
warming, the climate is putting another strain on the local places. For example, when
the development of global warming is accompanied by the falling snow line, the local
skiing industry is in a crisis. The snow line may move up as the temperature
goes up, and then the snow at the bottom will melt earlier. Fortunately, it is going to
be favourable for the local skiing industry to tide over tough periods since the
quantities of snowfall in some areas are more likely to increase.
What is the reaction of the glacier region? Climate change can be reflected in the
glacier region in southern New Zealand or land covered by ice and snow. The
reaction of a glacier to a climatic change involves a complex chain of processes,
Over time periods of years to several decades, cumulative changes in mass balance
cause volume and thickness changes, which will affect the flow of ice via altered
internal deformation and basal sliding. This dynamic reaction finally leads to glacier
length changes, the advance or retreat of glacier tongues. Undoubtedly, glacier mass
balance is a more direct signal of annual atmospheric conditions.
The latest research result of the National Institute of Water and Atmospheric (NIWA)
Research shows that the glacier line keeps moving up because of the impacts of
global warming. Further losses of ice can be reflected in the Mt. Cook Region. By
1996, a 14 km long sector of the glacier had melted down forming a melt lake
(Hooker Lake) with a volume. Melting of the glacier front at a rate of 40 m/yr will
cause the glacier to retreat at a rather uniform rate. Therefore, the lake will continue
to grow until it reaches the glacier bed.
A direct result of the melting glaciers is the change of high tides that serve as the main
factor for sea-level rise. The trend of sea-level rise will pose a threat to the
groundwater system for its hypersaline groundwater and then pose a possibility to
decrease agricultural production. Many experts believe that the best way to counter
This trend is to give a longer-term view of sea-level change in New Zealand. Indeed,
The coastal boundaries need to be upgraded and redefined.
There is no doubt that global warming has affected New Zealand in many aspects.
The emphasis on global warming should be based on the joint efforts of local
people and experts who conquer the tough period. For instance, farmers are taking a
long-term, multi-generational approach to adjust the breeds and species according to
The temperature. Agriculturists also find ways to tackle the problems that may bring
to the soil. In broad terms, going forward, the systemic resilience that’s been going
on for a long time in the ecosystem will continue.
How about animals' reactions? Experts have surprisingly realised that animals have
an unconventional adaptation to global warming. A study has looked at sea turtles on
a few northern beaches in New Zealand and it is very interesting to find that sea
turtles can become male or female according to the temperature. Further research
will try to find out how rising temperatures would affect the ratio of sex reversal in
their growth. Clearly, the temperature of the nest plays a vital role in the sexes of the
baby turtles.
Tackling the problems of global warming is never easy in New Zealand because
records show the slow process of global warming may have a different impact on
various regions. For New Zealand, the emission of carbon dioxide only accounts for
0.5% of the world’s total, which has met the governmental standard. However, New
Zealand’s effort counts only on the tip of the iceberg. So far, global warming has
been a world issue that still hangs in an ambiguous future.
Extracted from - IELTS Reading Practice Sets. Copyright © 2019 by IDP education, British Council and Cambridge Assessment English
Questions 27-32
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter in boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet.
27 What is the main idea of the first paragraph?
A The temperature in the polar region will increase less than that in New Zealand in the next century.
B The weather and climate of New Zealand are very important to its people because of its close location to the polar region.
C The air condition in New Zealand will maintain a high quality because of the ocean.
D The temperature of New Zealand will increase less than that of other regions in the next 100 years because it is surrounded by sea.
28 What is one effect of the wind belt that circles the Southern Oceans?
A New Zealand will have more moisture in winds in summer.
B New Zealand needs to face droughts more often in hotter months in a year.
C Soil water will increase as a result of weakening moisture in the winds.
D Agricultural production will be reduced as a result of more rainfall in other seasons.
29 What does “moisture deficit” mean to the grain and crops?
A The growing conditions will be very tough for crops.
B The growing season of some plants can hardly be determined.
C There will be a huge gap between the water plants needed and the water the earth can offer
D The soil of grain and crops in New Zealand reached its lowest production since the 1970s.
30 What changes will happen to the skiing industry due to the global warming phenomenon?
A skiing station may lower the altitude of skiing.
B Part of the skiing station needs to move to the north.
C The snowfall may increase in the part of the skiing station.
D The local skiing station may likely to make a profit because of the snowfall increase.
31 Cumulative changes over a long period of time in mass balance will lead to
A alterations in the volume and thickness of glaciers
B faster changes in internal deformation and basal sliding.
C bigger length of glaciers.
D the retreat of glacier tongues as a result of a change in annual atmospheric conditions.
32 Why does the writer mention NIWA in the sixth paragraph?
A To use a particular example to explain the effects brought by glacier melting.
B To emphasise the severance of the further loss of ice in the Mt. Cook Region.
C To alarm the reader of the melting speed of glaciers at a uniform rate.
D To note the lake in the region will disappear when it reaches the glacier bed.
Questions 33-35
Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 33-35 on your answer sheet
Research data shows that sea level has a close relationship with the change of climate. The major reason for the increase in sea level is connected with 33 ____________, The increase in sea level is also said to have a threat to the underground water system, the destruction of which caused by the rise of sea level will lead to a high probability of a reduction in 34_____________. In the long run, New Zealanders may have to improve the 35__________ if they want to diminish the effect change in sea levels.
Questions 36-40
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet, write
YES, if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer.
NO, if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN, if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
36 Farmers are less responsive to climate change than agriculturists.
37 The agricultural sector is too conservative and deals with climate change.
38 Turtle is vulnerable to climate change.
39 Global warming is going slowly, and it may have different effects on different areas in New Zealand
40 New Zealand must cut carbon dioxide emissions if they want to solve the problem of global warming.
27. Answer: D
Process to attempt the solution:
Identify the main idea of the first paragraph.
Recognize that the passage mentions that New Zealand's temperature trend is maintained by the surrounding ocean, acting as an air conditioner.
28. Answer: B
Process to attempt the solution:
Determine one effect of the wind belt (SAM) that circles the Southern Oceans as mentioned in the passage.
Understand that the passage notes changes in SAM in New Zealand lead to more rainfall in other seasons, resulting in heavier droughts in hotter months.
29. Answer: A
Process to attempt the solution:
Understand the meaning of "moisture deficit" to grain and crops.
Recognize that the passage states that measures of moisture deficit were at their highest since the 1970s in New Zealand.
30. Answer: C
Process to attempt the solution:
Determine the changes that may happen to the skiing industry due to global warming.
Understand that the passage mentions that, with the development of global warming, the local skiing industry is in a crisis.
31. Answer: A
Process to attempt the solution:
Identify the result of cumulative changes in mass balance over a long period.
Recognize that the passage mentions that cumulative changes lead to alterations in the volume and thickness of glaciers.
32. Answer: A
Process to attempt the solution:
Understand why the writer mentions NIWA in the sixth paragraph.
Recognize that the passage mentions NIWA to present research results, showing the glacier line moving up due to the impacts of global warming in southern New Zealand.
33. Answer: Hight tides
Process to attempt the solution:
Identify the factor closely related to the increase in sea level according to the research data.
Recognize that the passage associates the rise in sea level with climate change resulting in high tides.
34. Answer: agricultural production
Process to attempt the solution:
Explore the passage for information on the potential impact of rising sea levels on the underground water system.
Understand that the destruction of the underground water system may lead to a reduction in agricultural production.
35. Answer: coastal boundaries
Process to attempt the solution:
Look for information on long-term measures that New Zealanders may need to take to diminish the effects of changes in sea levels.
Recognize that improving coastal boundaries is suggested in the passage.
36. Answer: NOT GIVEN
Process to attempt the solution:
Acknowledge that the passage does not provide information on the responsiveness of farmers compared to agriculturists.
37. Answer: NOT GIVEN
Process to attempt the solution:
Realize that the passage does not explicitly state whether the agricultural sector is too conservative in dealing with climate change.
38. Answer: YES
Process to attempt the solution:
Identify information about the unconventional adaptation of sea turtles to global warming.
Recognize that the passage mentions sea turtles determining their sex based on temperature.
39. Answer: YES
Process to attempt the solution:
Look for information about the pace of global warming and its potential different effects on various regions in New Zealand.
Understand that the passage suggests global warming is going slowly and may have diverse effects.
40. Answer: NO
Process to attempt the solution:
Search for information on the necessity for New Zealand to cut carbon dioxide emissions to solve the problem of global warming.
Recognize that the passage does not explicitly state this as a requirement.
NOTE
The passage discusses about New Zealand's response to global warming, focusing on its geographical positioning and climate repercussions. For IELTS Reading, it explains the significance of consistent practice with IELTS reading practice tests. Matching Information tasks involve locating paragraphs discussing the impact of the Southern Annular Mode (SAM) on New Zealand's climate, resulting in altered moisture levels and heightened drought risks. Multiple Choice questions discuss topics such as the challenges faced by the skiing industry, the influence of glacier changes on sea levels, and the necessity for long-term strategies to cope with climate-related threats. True/False/Not Given tasks evaluate statements related to New Zealand's carbon dioxide contribution, the need for coastal boundary improvements, and surprising findings about animal adaptations to rising temperatures.
Aspects | Plant Scents | The Development of Plastics | Global Warming In New Zealand |
Understanding the Passage | Break down complex sentences into simpler parts. | Pay attention to the functions of emitted volatiles. | Identify various indirect defences and their mechanisms. |
Time Management | Quickly read and grasp the main idea of each paragraph. | Allocate time efficiently for understanding resin defence details. | Efficiently navigate through information about plant adaptations. |
Vocabulary Skills | Familiarize with botanical terms and names of plant compounds. | Understand terms like "thermoplastic" and "thermosets" in the context. | Recognize chemical names and terms related to glacier processes. |
Identifying Key Ideas | Focus on the purpose of emitted scents in attracting pollinators. | Identify the primary defence mechanism involving resin in pine trees. | Recognize the key role of moisture deficit in impacting agriculture. |
Understanding Tone | Note the informative tone in describing the impact of floral scents. | Observe the descriptive and explanatory tone regarding plastic development. | Recognize a blend of informative and warning tones related to global warming. |
Multiple Choice Questions | Pay attention to details when answering questions about emitted scents. | Identify specific components of plastic and their applications. | Understand the implications of global warming on different aspects in New Zealand. |
True/False/Not Given | Distinguish between statements supported by evidence and those not mentioned. | Assess statements related to Bakelite properties and its uses. | Evaluate statements regarding the impact of global warming on glaciers and sea levels. |
Matching Headings | Match headings to paragraphs discussing the economic impact of floral scents. | Connect headings with information about the development of plastics. | Associate headings with different aspects affected by global warming in New Zealand. |
Taking IELTS practice tests regularly is crucial for boosting success in the actual exam. These practice tests offer numerous benefits for candidates. They provide ample opportunities for practice, help in developing skimming and scanning skills, enable predictive writing, and assist in structuring the exam effectively, among other advantages.
In the IELTS writing section, candidates face four tasks and forty questions. To excel in this section, candidates need to engage in thorough practice. By practising extensively, they can prepare themselves to handle all the challenges posed by the writing tasks. Utilizing the provided IELTS practice tests can elevate their preparation to the next level.
Hello Student,
For the AMC (Australian Medical Council) exam , which assesses international medical graduates for practice in Australia, the IELTS requirement is generally a minimum overall score of 7.0 , with no individual band score below 7.0 (in Listening, Reading, Writing, and Speaking).
Alternatively, the AMC also accepts equivalent scores from OET, TOEFL iBT, and PTE Academic :
Meeting these requirements is essential to proceed with the AMC’s application and registration processes.
I hope this answer helps you. If you have more queries then feel free to share your questions with us we will be happy to assist you.
Thank you and wishing you all the best for your bright future.
Hello
To be eligible for the Australian Medical Council (AMC) exams , candidates must demonstrate English .
AMC assessment process :
1. Accepted English Language Tests and Scores
IELTS ( International English Language Testing System ) :
Overall band score : 7.0 in each band ( listening , reading , writing and speaking ) .
PTE Academic ( Pearson Test of English Academic ) :
Overall score of 65 in each band ( listening , reading , writing and speaking ) .
2. Validity of Test Scores
The test results must be no older than two years at the time of submitting your AMC application .
3. Preparation Tips for IELTS
Practice regularly : Build your language skills across all four components .
Take practice exams : practice can help improve speed and accuracy .
professional coaching if needed , specially for writing and speaking , which are often the most challenging part .
Use official IELTS resources : Cambridge IELTS books , online mock tests and other reliable materials can give you an accurate rating .
4. Application Tips
Ensure that your English test scores are valid and meet the minimum requirements before applying .
Keep a copy of your scores as they may need to be provided to both the AMC and registration authority in Australia .
Hope this helps you .
All the best
If you have completed a master's degree in the UK, you might still need to take the IELTS test to qualify for a Permanent Residency (PR) or Work Visa in Australia. While your degree from an English-speaking country like the UK may demonstrate your proficiency in English, Australian immigration authorities typically require a standardized English language test score, such as IELTS, to assess your language skills formally.
For better guidance, Invicta Institute can provide you with detailed information and assistance regarding the specific English language requirements for Australian PR or Work Visa applications. Invicta's experienced counselors can help you navigate the process and determine if your UK degree suffices or if you need to take the IELTS test.
Since you're currently in the first year of your Bachelor of Commerce (B.Com), planning ahead for your MBA abroad is a wise decision. The ideal time to take your IELTS exam is during your third year of B.Com. This timing ensures that your IELTS score, which is valid for two years, will still be valid when you apply for MBA programs.
The duration of IELTS coaching can vary depending on the intensity and structure of the program. Typically, coaching programs range from 4 to 12 weeks, with classes held several times a week. Intensive courses might last just 4-6 weeks, with daily sessions that cover all four test sections: Listening, Reading, Writing, and Speaking. Less intensive programs can extend up to 12 weeks, offering a more relaxed pace with classes a few times a week. Additionally, many coaching centers provide flexible schedules, including weekend batches and personalized one-on-one sessions, allowing students to choose a plan that best fits their needs and timelines. Hyderabad offers several reputable institutes for IELTS coaching (https://icclearning.com/under-graduate/) , catering to the diverse needs of aspiring test-takers. One standout option is Invicta Career Consultancy (ICC), renowned for its comprehensive IELTS coaching programs. ICC combines experienced faculty, personalized study plans, and rigorous practice sessions to equip students with the necessary skills for success in the IELTS exam. You can check them out
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